I've been reading the British National Formulary 65 (BNF-65) and it mentioned that in some, especially at higher dosages, sedating (first-generation) antihistamines, can produce paradoxical excitatory (or stimulating) effects and so I felt like asking the age-old question, "Why?" because as I hope is obvious by my questions I am fascinated by drug action and I felt there was no better place to ask this question than here on biology stackexchange.
closed as too broad by WYSIWYG♦, Chris♦, rg255, AliceD, The Last Word Dec 9 '14 at 10:09
There are either too many possible answers, or good answers would be too long for this format. Please add details to narrow the answer set or to isolate an issue that can be answered in a few paragraphs. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.