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This question is a follow-up to this one.

I've been wondering how small that probability is. As we all know, "safe" sex, that is (correctly) using a condom and all that, isn't perfectly safe. So, in order to put this question into perspective, I'd like to know which one (safe sex or indirect insemination) has the greater chance to lead to impregnation. In other words, can you explain the probability of this scenario in terms a layman like me can understand?

Thanks in advance!

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This question appears to be off-topic because it is about sexual products and not biology. –  Amory Oct 6 '13 at 21:44
    
I'm sorry if it comes off that way but the comparison to condom use is used as an attempt to put the other question into perspective, as I already mentioned. –  James Blue Oct 6 '13 at 21:59
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Safer sex techniques are more risky. Perfect condom use is associated with around a 2% pregnancy rate within a year. According to that, even sterilization has a 0.1% (male) or 0.5% (female) rate. Combining techniques is, of course, safer. "Indirect," as you proposed in the other question, will border on an infinitesimally small chance, as answered there.

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Ok, that's what I thought. Thanks a lot! :) –  James Blue Oct 6 '13 at 21:52
    
Not impossible though, see my answer here :). –  terdon Oct 7 '13 at 2:11
    
@terdon Still the best news story ever. I remember everyone freaking out when they read that. –  Amory Oct 7 '13 at 2:14
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