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Nov 13, 2023 at 6:42 history edited Hudjefa CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 13, 2023 at 5:42 history edited Hudjefa CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 13, 2023 at 5:41 comment added Hudjefa @BryanKrause, much obliged for the feedback. I edited my answer.
Nov 13, 2023 at 5:36 history edited Hudjefa CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 13, 2023 at 5:33 comment added Hudjefa Indeed, but $40\%$ is the grand total amount of the drug that can exert a therapeutic effect. What do you make of, $1 \times \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^1 + \frac{3}{2} \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^2..$
Nov 13, 2023 at 5:27 comment added Bryan Krause No, that is not what bioavailability is. Bioavailability is the amount that ever gets into the body. If it takes time to be absorbed and is eliminated at any rate, it will never all be in the body at the same time. That doesn't mean it's not a useful concept, it just means it's not sufficient information to answer the question.
Nov 13, 2023 at 5:24 comment added Hudjefa Ah, a simple error. You mean to say that at no point in time (after drug ingestion) is there around $40\%$ of the drug in the body? We must then discuss concentration of the drug in the body as a time function $f(t)$ so that by integration we get the average concentration which we can then use to find bioavailability which is exactly what cogito is $40\%$. What's bioavailability then if it isn't that simple. Why calculate it if it serves no purpose? Also, the $40\%$ may be the maximum amount of the drug in the body which will be important for toxicity assessment I suppose.
Nov 13, 2023 at 5:10 comment added Bryan Krause No, that's not how it works. Bioavailability is how much of the drug ends up in the body ever; your answer is making an unstated assumption that it all enters immediately at time 0. Robert's answer explains already why this is a problem. You're just restating the attempt OP mentioned ("is it as easy as") without acknowledging this is what you did. Do you understand the question?
Nov 13, 2023 at 4:39 history answered Hudjefa CC BY-SA 4.0