Timeline for Why is the variance of the Wright-Fisher model not equal p(1-p)/(2N)?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
4 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Aug 17, 2019 at 22:09 | vote | accept | M. Beausoleil | ||
| Aug 17, 2019 at 17:43 | comment | added | Daniel Weissman | @M.Beausoleil: yes, exactly. | |
| Aug 16, 2019 at 14:02 | comment | added | M. Beausoleil | This is because $Var[n'] = 2Npq$ which is the variance of the binomial model $(2Np(1-p))$ Right? Because $n'$ is also coming from a binomial sampling | |
| Aug 14, 2019 at 19:43 | history | answered | Daniel Weissman | CC BY-SA 4.0 |