I'm having difficulty with the following problem:
In yeasts, genes MEC1 and SGS1 favor survival in response to HU (hydroxyurea). In the figure below, Δ indicates homozygosis for the mutant allele that causes loss of function. mec1-100 yeasts are heterozygous (one MEC1 allel is wild and the other is mutant).
a) What genetic interaction do genes SGS1 and MEC1 maintain?
b) How do you explain the results at the molecular level?
c) How do you explain the difference in phenotype between the homozygous and heterozygous yeasts for the allel that causes loss of function for the MEC1 gene?
d) Why would you combine the sgs1Δ mutant with mec1-100, instead of combining it with mec1Δ?
My attempt to solve this was as follows:
Observing the sgs1 Δ mutant in homozygosis for MEC1, we see that the phenotype that is produced is within a scale close to the WT phenotype. Further, in heterozygosis for mec1-100 without mutation we also see a phenotypical scale similar to the WT. When we see the heterozygotes for mec1-100/sgs1Δ the scale drops abruptly and the phenotype passes to be very far from the WT phenotype. This last one can be explained as an incomplete dominance in which the genotype of mec1 must present both WT allels to achieve its effect, because just one of the WT alleles cannot fulfill its function, so what we see in comparison with the sgs1Δ/MEC1 homozygote dominant is different from mec1-100/sgs1Δ. When we mutate the gen mec1Δ we see that the viability of the cells is reduced, even though the gen sgs1 is still present.
What has been observed and described previously could be explained as a recessive epistasis where regardless of what happens with gen SGS1, if MEC is mutated (double recessive) it masks the effect of Sgs1. That is clearly seen because when mec1 is present, the viability is close to the WT scale while when mec is mutated or in heterozygosis (which would work as a mutant by the incomplete dominance) it does not matter what happens with sgs1 (if it is mutated or not mutated) the phenotype of the molecular pathway is not produced (a phenotype of low viability is produced instead).
At the molecular level, it could be explained as follows:
A substrate exists that uses the enzyme produced by MEC1 to activate the viable molecular pathway. In absence of MEC1 the pathway is not activated, SGS1 uses MEC1 to carry out its function that also promotes viability, therefore if MEC1 does not exist SGS1 does not have an enzyme to interact with.
But turns out that the correct answer for this problem is that the genetic interaction is a redundancy between SGS1 and MEC1.
My question here is:
Can this problem, as expressed in the first paragraph, be taken as a recessive epistasis? Why can't it be considered a recessive epistasis? In cases where we have a logarithmic scale, if the correct answer is a genetic redundancy, can we take it as a viability generated by both genes anyway? Is the viability generated by each gene comparable at all?