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What makes these genes different as to be classed as an endogenous retrovirus? I've read the entirity of Wikipedia on retroviruses and didn't find the answer. I think it could be that these genes are identical to some viruses making the conclusion appear sound. But I'm not sure. If this is the case is there any other ways to conclude a gene is an endogenous retrovirus?

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    $\begingroup$ That’s a good question. However on this list you need to tell us what research you have done already to try to find the answer. You should also tell us what possibilities you have come up with yourself after thinking about the problem. You can check out the form here in the Help on asking good questions. $\endgroup$
    – David
    Jun 22 at 12:53
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    $\begingroup$ The APMIS article link I provided in my answer to your earlier question (biology.stackexchange.com/questions/101276/…) answers your question, either directly or in its references (e.g. refs 2 and 3). In particular "HERVs have been historically classified within several different groups, formerly designated as families, based mainly on sequence similarity and other structural features" $\endgroup$
    – Armand
    Jun 22 at 17:19

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