How is it that we are dealing with so many antiobiotic resistant infections in iatrogenic settings, and yet this very old bacterial pathogen has still not acquired resistance to penicilin (the oldest antibiotic to which it has had the longest relative exppsure to)??

  • 2
    $\begingroup$ While rare, it does happen--reports of penicillin-resistance go back to at least 1949 $\endgroup$
    – Luigi
    Aug 18, 2021 at 12:38

1 Answer 1


First off, Treponema Pallidum-the bacteria which causes Syphilis-is EXTREMELY SENSITIVE to Pencillin; even a small does can wipe them out! Secondly, since Syphilis has been around for centuries without mutating into a form immune to Pencillin this suggests TP doesn’t have ANY protective measures against antibiotics-making it highly susceptible. Lastly, resistance rates remain low globally, meaning strains which develop immunity don’t survive long against antibiotic treatment


You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .