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How is it that we are dealing with so many antiobiotic resistant infections in iatrogenic settings, and yet this very old bacterial pathogen has still not acquired resistance to penicilin (the oldest antibiotic to which it has had the longest relative exppsure to)??

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    $\begingroup$ While rare, it does happen--reports of penicillin-resistance go back to at least 1949 $\endgroup$
    – Luigi
    Aug 18 at 12:38

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