I was looking through this article in the journal Behavior Genetics. The researchers has investigated 400 000 people in the UK Biobank and calculated polygenic scores for 33 traits. Then they investigated how much offspring the 400 000 people had generated and coupled the traits to fecundity (number of children).
They found that people with a genetic composition that suggested that they had a high risk of (for instance) ADHD, obesity, and becoming smokers in general had better reproductive success.
I am having some problem understanding how big the effect is. If you look at the main results in figure 2, you get a list of polygenic traits with some measure of association, but how large a difference in reproductive success does the measure indicate?
If the number they get for "ADHD" is slightly above 0.03 does this mean that people with a very high genetic probability of having ADHD statistically have 3% more children than those with virtually zero risk of getting ADHD?
What is the interpretation of figure 2 in this paper? How many more children are people prone to various polygenic traits such as ADHD, high BMI etc. statistically supposed have according to the research?
Is says under the figure: "Each point represents a single bivariate regression of RLRS on a polygenic score. P value threshold is 0.05, Bonferroni-corrected for multiple comparisons."