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I have seen on a youtube video that the female body produces antigenes and antibodies when she is pregnant with a boy. But this behaviour is not produced when she is pregnant with a girl. These means that the more antigenes she produces, the more femminin the next child will be. More antigenes are produced when she is pregnant with a boy.

  1. Is this correct? if yes, then why does the female body produce antibodies and antigenes when the fetus is a boy and not a girl?

  2. What other pregnancy actions or behaviours are gender based?

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  • $\begingroup$ Can you link your source? Otherwise I would consider higly unlikely. $\endgroup$ – Chris Sep 27 '14 at 17:37
  • $\begingroup$ youtu.be/5Tg_3OVizrA?t=2m15s $\endgroup$ – nFu9DT Sep 27 '14 at 19:23
  • $\begingroup$ Hmm, I always have my problems with the "scientists have found out" phrase when not linking to the actual publication, but I will have a look into it. $\endgroup$ – Chris Sep 28 '14 at 18:39
  • $\begingroup$ I haven't found any articles besides the formation of antibodies against the "Rhesus"-antigen which happens when the mother is Rh- and the baby is Rh+. This is not restricted to male babies but happens against both sexes. Besides this, it doesn't really make sense for the body to react in this way. The mechanism of immunologic tolerance prevents the mother from launching an immune reaction against the fetus. $\endgroup$ – Chris Sep 29 '14 at 6:42
  • $\begingroup$ @user2360 If you don't get an answer here you may then want to ask your question on skeptics.SE. It is a SE website that deals with questions of the kind "is this claim (source) true?" question. $\endgroup$ – Remi.b Oct 1 '14 at 1:13

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