Complete molar pregnancy is one where an ovum devoid of nucleus is fertilized by a sperm after which the haploid set of chromosomes double to form a diploid set.
As far as my understanding extends if the sperm had
Y chromosome the embryo will not survive.
However if the sperm has
X chromosome the zygote will survive to have the 46 XX karyotype and will start to grow as molar pregnancy (which is basically trophoblastic tissue with no fetal parts, as answered by Anongoodnurse).
Why is there no proper fetus? Why can't a "female clone" of male parent form instead? Where is the defect as such?
The Question pointed out by WYSISYG contains data only from animal studies. Although it answers my question, I want more data obtained from study of human trophoblastic tissue (from the molar pregnancy). Papers on imprinting which are linked in those questions have no mention of molar pregnancy although Prader-Willi and Angelman syndromes are mentioned (as cases seen in humans).
Oops, I corrected my question thanks to anongoodnurse. I mixed up complete and partial moles with each other.