0
$\begingroup$

Suppose a sperm fertilized a 2nd polar body( haploid) is there a chance of somewhat normal development?

$\endgroup$

2 Answers 2

1
$\begingroup$

The 2nd polar body contains almost no cytoplasm, so if only this body is fertilized it contains no maternal genes to guide the development and moreover not enough nutrients. So this wouldn't work. "Source" Moreover, there wasn't reported even any case of "twin" resulting from the fertilization of 2nd polar body according to this article

There was reported case of twins formed by a mass of fertilized ovum and fertilized (diploid) first polar body. Source

What could happen is that if both polar body and oocyte are fertilized, these two cells merge and form tetraploid embryo. Which is sometimes able to form fetus (sometimes just ends as mola hydatinosa), but definitely not able to produce a viable child in humans.

$\endgroup$
1
$\begingroup$

Mpribis is 99% correct, except that the polar body does indeed contain the same amount of maternal genes as the secondary oocyte (remember, it's the product of the second division--from diploid to haploid). But like Mpbris said, since the second polar body is nutrient-poor, and lacks full complement of organelles, the odds of it remaining viable if it were fertilized are vanishingly small. Such "polar body twinning" is theoretically possible, but has yet to be documented as of the the time of my writing this.

$\endgroup$

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .