1
$\begingroup$

I have a question. Given a molecule A and two isoforms of a gene X, Y, and the knowledge that A targets X. Can I infere from this anything about whether A targets Y?

As a motivation think about Furosemide (= A) and SLC12A1, SLC12A2. From Drugbank I know that Furosemide targets SLC12A1, and from KEGG I know that Furosemide targets both genes. I wonder whether I can infer the KEGG knowledge already from the Drugbank knowledge...

Best, Alex :)

$\endgroup$
1
$\begingroup$

The short answer is no. What matters is whether the sequence and folding (if you are talking about binding of A to proteins instead of DNA) of each isoform of your gene still results in the binding of A.

I other words, A may bind to X. Y, an isoform of X may not have the same sequence that A likes to bind to. Or, in the case of proteins and A, Y may fold slightly differently, preventing accessibility of A to Y.

| improve this answer | |
$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.