I'm relatively new to the field of electrophysiology, so if anything is unclear or incorrect, please let me know. One thing that continues to confuse me throughout my reading is the property of resonance frequency of a neuron. Generally, I've seen resonance frequency defined as the frequency at which neurons respond best to inputs of injected current, which makes sense. What does not make sense to me is why it has also been defined as the frequency at which peak impedance is observed because in circuit analysis, resonance frequency is the exact opposite (the value of frequency at which you have minimum impedance). The definition for electronics is logical in my mind because that's also the value at which current is at a maximum (since the impedance is lowest). I'm assuming that the relationship between impedance and resonance frequency is flipped in neurons because of another property I'm not considering (like driving force of ions, voltage-gated channels, etc.), but I'm genuinely curious what the reason is. If anyone could be of assistance on this, I would greatly appreciate it.
EDIT WITH POTENTIAL RESOLUTION BY QUESTIONER: I believe one of the pioneering texts discussing neuronal resonance was a Trends in Neurosciences paper by Hutcheon and Yarom (Volume 23, Issue 5, published in 2000). However, after reviewing this text, I think I may finally understand the idea. As described in the referenced article (which I would highly recommend), membrane properties of a neuron allow it to act like a band pass filter. A little more poking around the internet led me to the conclusion that it is specifically a parallel resonant band-pass filter (for a brief explanation, visit http://www.allaboutcircuits.com/textbook/alternating-current/chpt-8/resonant-filters/). I believe this might be the correct interpretation, but have left it as an open question because if there is something wrong in my interpretation, all you bright individuals out there can point out my mistakes or elaborate further on the concept! Thank you!
