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Vaccines can either be given intramuscular or subcutaneous or intradermal. I know the technique used is specific for each organism. What decides this? I understand the reason for oral vaccines in polio but, why should a vaccine that is given s/c not be given im?

If there is a logic to this (which I am sure there is), it would be a lot easier to remember the same.

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When the effectiveness of subcutaneous is comparable to intramuscular, then the choice is made based on the degree of discomfort and adverse reactions.

In many situations intramuscular will outperform subcutaneous delivery due to subcutaneous fat having poor vascularity which may result in slow mobilisation and processing of antigen(source).

Disclosure: I am not a biologist so this is outside my field of expertise.

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