2
$\begingroup$

In accordance to my limited knowledge of biology, asexual organisms exactly copy their DNA as there is no "contaminant", which in sexual reproduction is the other organism's DNA.

$\endgroup$
  • 4
    $\begingroup$ Your understanding is wrong; you have confused the mutation process with the process of genetic recombination. The two are not related. $\endgroup$ – iayork Nov 4 '16 at 14:48
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Mutation is mutation, a wrong nucleotide substituted (etc.) for the correct one. The mechanisms don't vary from organism to organism. It is, after death, the great equalizer. $\endgroup$ – anongoodnurse Nov 4 '16 at 15:06
1
$\begingroup$

It is not necessary that no mutation occurs in the system where no gene recombination or "contaminant" takes place. There are mutations (which are sudden abrupt inheritable changes)

There can be errors in genome which can cause mutations.

Take example of replication of DNA-:

There are many enzymes linked with it : DNA polymerases ( I, II,III) in prokaryotes where asexual reproduction occurs which add nucleotides to make replicas of DNA of parent ( you can check the complete process at wikipedia)

Come to the point : DNA polymerase III, after synthesising dna chains has ability of proof reading. It can correct the mismatches ( hope you know that adenine bonds with thymine and cytosine with guanine, they are nitrogen bases of dna)

DNA polymerase III can correct the mismatches but it is not error proof- it can't distinguish between thymine and uracil (another nitrogen base ; thymine is methylated uracil)

This is only one possible error, there can be many such hence asexual reproduction isn't error proof

$\endgroup$
  • $\begingroup$ @ collin is that right with you $\endgroup$ – Pranjal Rana Sep 29 '17 at 12:31

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.