The single explanation I found for the polysynaptic reflex is that the interneuron diverges into more pathways, such as the efferent motor neuron, the inhibitory neuron to the opposite extensor muscle, and a ramification that goes to the brain. But why couldn't the afferent neuron axon solve for these ramifications? Furthermore, it is counterintuitive for a nociceptive reflex, that must save the damaging tissue as fast as possible, to be slowed down by an additional synapse.


Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.