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Meiosis I is required so that the 2N cells become 1N, and so a 1N sperm and 1N egg can fuse to become 2N again.

But why is meiosis II required? Why does our body need to go from 2 1N cells to 4 1N cells? Can't it just use one of the 2N cells after Meiosis 1?

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After meiosis I, those n=23 chromosomes have two chromatides. Meiosis II just separates them into single chromatides.

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befor a cell enters its division its heridity material is in a form of a coilled and condensed material called chromatin whose amount is 2N and is diploid 2n However when the cell enters its interphase its chromatin dobbles but its no of chromosomes remain 46 so when cell enters meiosis 1 it produces two daughter haploid cells 2n having 2 same sister chromatids attach to same centeromere as cells at the end of meiosis 1 are haploid 1n but amount still remains 2N to half the amount of chromatin meiosis 2 occur so that 4 daughter cells with haploid no of chomosomes 1n as well as halfed amount of chromatin 1N o can be produced

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    $\begingroup$ Welcome to Biology.SE! Please add some references to your answer. $\endgroup$
    – another 'Homo sapien'
    Jul 15, 2017 at 9:20

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