I was reading a paper Why polyploidy is rarer in animals than in plants’: myths and mechanisms, Mable 2004 where I found this sentence.
Stebbins (1950) suggested that autopolyploids were probably more frequent than often considered because of the ‘fallacy’ that simple segregation rules (i.e. auto- polyploids showing multivalent associations and allopolyploids showing bivalent associations) can be used to distinguish modes of origin.
What does it mean? I know that autopolyploidy is where the chromosome sets are from the same species and it is the other way for allopolyploidy. What do segregation rules mean here and what is the fallacy?