Can dopamine antagonists such as Thorazine that are used to treat schizophrenia and bipolar be used to upregulate dopamine in the long term in healthy (non schizophrenic or bipolar) users to get a similar effect as a stimulant high without inducing neurotoxicity? Due to tolerance buildup of the dopamine blocker, my assumption is that it should result in dopamine upregulation when dopamine antagonist use is stopped.

As an example, in extremely high doses of methamphetamine, meth induces temporary schizophrenia (skin picking, crank bugs, paranoia, hallucinations, etc), and extremely similar, if not exact, effects to bipolar, which are the only two neurological diseases resulted from dopamine over-production and release. Over time, tolerance to meth builds up and it stops being effective, unless it is stopped for a period of time resulting in reverse-tolerance. Can this same dopamine downregulation effect be used in dopamine antagonists as dopamine upregulation, creating the same euphoric feeling resulted from meth use or bipolar hypomania if the dopamine antagonist is taken for a period of time then stopped?

  • $\begingroup$ Neurologically and physiologically in general the body is programmed to find it's state of homeostasis. Dopamine as a molecule within neurology can not in fact pass the Blood Brain Barrier in which is why the precursor L-Dopa is administered for deficiency. Regard to homeostasis in a non naturally deficient person, both down and or up regulation to find this balance over time can occur in which cessation is not a good idea without medical assistance as natural production may well have changed gene expression. $\endgroup$
    – Max
    Apr 15, 2017 at 16:04
  • $\begingroup$ @kirill2485 - please be nice to people spending their time on your questions. The answer from Max was reverted to a comment by the mod team, explaining the reason it pops up again. $\endgroup$
    – AliceD
    Apr 15, 2017 at 20:45
  • $\begingroup$ @kirill2485 - it's already clear that it's not an answer, because the post was converted to a comment. You wrote 'I already told you, this is NOT an answer...' - The capitals imply screaming, like 'oh my, not you again, dude, can't you read my question?'. You could say something along the lines of 'Thanks for the comment, but....' $\endgroup$
    – AliceD
    Apr 15, 2017 at 20:50


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