I am reading  and I didn't understand this passage:
All bilateral cases should be counted as hereditary because the proportion of affected offspring closely approximates the 50% expected with dominant inheritance.
Shouldn't the percentage be 75% with dominant inheritance?
: Knudson, Alfred G. "Mutation and cancer: statistical study of retinoblastoma." Proceedings of the National Academy of Sciences 68.4 (1971): 820-823.