I'm not trying to understand the underlying molecular processes, rather understand it conceptually. This is what it says in my coursebook:
"The imprint, obtained during gametogenesis, is reversible: an allele with paternal imprint will, after transmission through the female germline, be changed into an allele with maternal imprint.
In other words:
Paternal imprinting means that some gene obtained from your father is 'silenced'. These 'silenced tags' remain during your whole life, but are reset during the formation of egg-cells or sperm-cells.
Some genes are always silenced in egg-cells, others in sperm-cells.
There is a continuous activation and deactivation in function of the parent who transmits the gene"
I don't understand how the first paragraph and the last paragraph can both be correct.
If the paternal imprint changes into a maternal imprint after passing through the germline, this implies that the gene is just deactivated in the chromosome that is passed on and we call is paternal or maternal depending on who passes it on.
On the other hand, the last paragraph (and the middle one) imply that, if you receive a gene with maternal imprint from your mother as a man, your body resets the 'silencing' during gametogenesis, realizes a sperm cell is being made and decides not to silence it since it will now be passed on from a father. Only this can explain why it would lead to continuous activation/deactivation or reversibility.
Which of the two is correct?