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If the absence of teeth is a dominant trait, then why is it not seen in generations? My teacher taught that absence of teeth is a mendelian dominant trait, but why don't we see this trait if it is dominant?

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closed as unclear what you're asking by Remi.b, The Last Word, David, AliceD Jul 25 '18 at 19:13

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Hypodontia isn't a single gene phenotype, but a poli-genic mechanism involved with epistatic phenomenons and environmental scenarios.

The trasmission isn't clear till now, but when you're talking about a poli-gene phenotype isn't so easy to describe the way in which the trasmission is performed. You could find every info about this disease here, in a meta-review study:

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  • $\begingroup$ Note also that if there was indeed a dominant allele for hypodontia, then if the frequency of this allele is low enough, you would still not see it (or only very rarely). $\endgroup$ – Remi.b Jul 24 '18 at 19:30

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