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Suppose a flower having both male and female reproductive parts is self-fertilized then can this be called asexual reproduction...?I'm quite confused cause in this case the fusion of male and female gametes do take place but again the gametes are from the same parent....please help.

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According to this article from Berkeley, asexual reproduction is:

Any reproductive process that does not involve meiosis or syngamy

Using this definition of asexual reproduction and knowing self-fertilization involves meiosis and syngamy, it is not asexual.

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