0
$\begingroup$

We all know that females have an inactivated X chromosome (Most of its genes are inactivated). Consider a female who is a heterozygous carrier of an X linked abnormality, If the inactivated X was that carrying the normal gene, shouldn't the abnormality be expressed in this female? Why is it not expressed even though the other X is inactivated?

|improve this question
$\endgroup$
4
$\begingroup$

Because in different cells different copies of the X chromosome might be inactivated. So, in (approximately) 50% of the cells you will have the X carrying the normal gene activated, and in the remaining 50% you will have the other. You might start reading something here, and then go in further detail to understand. A nice article is here

|improve this answer
$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.