If the Hayflick limit says that there are a maximum of around 60 cell division before a cell becomes senescent, I assume this is because the cell looses length of telomere. But how can this be if, for example our skin cells turnover every 30 days if that is the case then wouldn't our skin be entirely senescent by 30 days x 60, i.e. 5 years

A little confused about the logic behind Hayflick limit and link to cellular senescence, doesn't make sense in all cell types (i.e. skin cells)


Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.