When looking at the tissue expression of the BRAF protein it seems that BRAF is regularly expressed in almost all of the tissues. There is elevated expression in tissues like the Testis and the Parathyroid gland, but the expression in the Skin is about average. So how does it make sense that for example in tumor samples of skin cutaneous melanoma (TCGA-SKCM) the BRAF mutations are so dominant (about 50% of the cases contain a BRAF mutation)? And on the other hand, it occurs less frequently in other cancer types?

  • $\begingroup$ This is a good question - I will try to answer it later. $\endgroup$
    – Chris
    Mar 12 '19 at 16:39
  • $\begingroup$ Chris, if you know why, I will like to hear it please. Even if you only have an assumption about it. $\endgroup$
    – rafiko1
    Mar 18 '19 at 16:26

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