My textbook is giving me two definitions
1st def: "random orientation of homologous chromosomes at the metaphase plate in meiosis 1."
2nd def: "alleles for one gene separate into gametes independently of alleles of any other gene (only if genes are on non-homologs or very far apart on same chromosome)."
It's kind of hard to explain but here are my thoughts on this:
It seems to me that the 1st definition is exclusively taking a look at each pair of homologous chromosomes: It looks like it is talking about alleles on certain homologs themselves and how there's 50% chance that a gamete will get a paternal and maternal allele of a gene after anaphase I.
And I'm guessing that the 2nd definition is an extension of the first by comparing gene assortment in all the homologous chromosomes: It looks like it is primarily talking about the genes that are on each pair of homologous chromosome and how they (the genes) separate independently of each other (because they are on different homologs) in addition to the "random orientation of homologous chromosomes".
Can someone please clarify?