0
$\begingroup$

Let's take the Influenzavirus as an example, and I have 5 of it. Would all 5 viruses have the same RNA with the same base order? Or would the RNA base order differ from eachother?

$\endgroup$
1
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Different viruses have different viral genomes. This is the case for different strains of flu, too. $\endgroup$
    – acvill
    Mar 26, 2020 at 20:48

3 Answers 3

3
$\begingroup$

A person infected with a strain of a pathogenic virus will have copies of that virus in their body.

Virus particle genomes could contain a number of substitution, insertion, and deletion mutations. The surface proteins on enveloped and non-enveloped virus copies could contain mutations. Most mutations are deleterious and those particles will not be infectious.

But the genome sequence of that virus will be largely identical, these mutations aside, and copies will be packaged so as to attempt to reinfect and reproduce.

Actual mutation rates depend on the virus type (RNA, DNA, single- or double-stranded, sense; see Figure 12.1 about the Baltimore classification of viruses), and how it uses reverse transcriptase, RNA, or DNA polymerase to make copies of its genome for use in expression (to make viral proteins) and reproduction (to make viral genomes).

For instance, RNA-dependent RNA polymerase has a lower fidelity rate — makes more copying mistakes — than DNA polymerase. Reverse transcriptase can also introduce mutations when turning the viral RNA genome into DNA, and vice versa. These processes can also introduce errors in expression of membranous or capsid proteins in enveloped and non-enveloped viruses.

The RNA virus family Orthomyxoviridae contains the strains of influenza that infect humans. These are enveloped, negative-sense, single-stranded RNA viruses. They use RNA polymerase to turn their genome into forward-stranded RNA molecules that can act as both mRNA (messenger RNA that is translated into viral proteins) and as a template (again, using RNA polymerase) for making copies of the influenza genome, itself.

Errors introduced at these two steps will result in copies that are different from the parent.

$\endgroup$
1
$\begingroup$

That's another way of querying the virus mutation rate. HIV has a 100,000 faster mutation rate than Herpes(HSV). Then, the mutation rate is measured as the number of substitutions per nucleotide per generation, defined as a cell infection in viruses (μs/n/c)... I think that means that every virus varies by about one base pair, which means that they are all different. most viruses that explode out of a cell are indentical except for 1/10,000th of their genome.

enter image description here

RNA viruses mutate 100 times more than DNA viruses.

Viruses with high mutation rates could be combated by the administration of mutagens. HIV develops drug resistance very fast (one day), that's why they have to use multiple drugs. Mutation rate evades the immune system and helps jump the species barrier.

ref: https://jvi.asm.org/content/84/19/9733

For lots of graphical illustrations of virus mutation, search images for "virus mutation rate".

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ AIDS is not a virus, but the disease caused by the HIV virus. $\endgroup$ Mar 27, 2020 at 8:10
  • $\begingroup$ Ok, speaking a bit simply. corrected. $\endgroup$ Mar 27, 2020 at 10:44
0
$\begingroup$

Do all Viruses have the same RNA

No, different viruses have different RNA. Some viruses have DNA which are also different depending on strain to strain.

and I have 5 of it. Would all 5 viruses have the same RNA with the same base order?

Have 5 of it in where? in a host due to an infection? Theoretically if the infection is caused by 1 propagule and thus the obtained viruses are clonal to the founder propagule; they would be highly similar in their genetic sequence; but some variations may happen.

$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ My thoughts are that all Covid-19 have the same RNA sequence that transcript and translates to the spike proteins. So my goal is to know the following: if all Covid-19 viruses have the same RNA sequence that translates to the protein spikes, would it not be easier to develop a protein which has a very high affinity to this sequence in the RNA of Covid-19 and deactivate it to forbid any further transcription and translation of protein spikes, so the virus would be built in the cells but without receptors to bind to other cells, so it becomes useless? $\endgroup$
    – Jason
    Mar 27, 2020 at 8:24

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .