In the context of genomic imprinting, how does a human cell "know" whether a chromosome is paternal or maternal(out of a homologous pair), in order to silence genes?

  • $\begingroup$ What precisely are you referring to by “gene silencing”? The only thing it means to me is ensuring the X chromosome of females (in man) only expresses genes to the same extent as in males. As far as I am aware this silencing of one gene copy occurs at random, without any reference to the parental origin of the chromosome. And please do not use the anthropomorphic “know” in questions. You can phrase them in the passive voice, e.g. “how is it determined”. Sloppy phraseology leads to sloppy thinking. $\endgroup$ – David Jun 4 '20 at 18:54
  • $\begingroup$ @MaximilianPress. Once again. The question talks about gene silencing in a chromosome copy-specific manner. This is not equivalent to genomic imprinting, which is not mentioned in the question. $\endgroup$ – David Jun 4 '20 at 22:39
  • $\begingroup$ Deleting the answer-to-comment and my other comments as they seem to be problematic. $\endgroup$ – Maximilian Press Jun 16 '20 at 18:12

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