If you define male as the heterogametic sex, and female as the homogametic sex, then my question sounds like a tautology. But, what I'm trying to get at is why is it that the traits we associate with "males" (e.g. having an unlimited amount of possible offspring, greater average height, etc) appear in the heterogametic sex, and why traits that we associate with "females" (e.g. having a limited amount of possible offspring, shorter average height, etc) appear in the homogametic sex. Or, is it simply by chance that the homogametic sex became the female sex and the heterogametic sex the opposite?
As far as I understand it, heterogametic chromones allow for a greater chance of mutations being displayed, so I wonder whether there is something advantageous about this occurring in the male sex rather than the female sex. Perhaps it is because males are more "expendable" since they can have an unlimited number of offspring? Is this line of reasoning accurate, and are there any alternative explanations that go deeper than this?