In the CDC webpage about Covid-19's variants the next sentence appears:
This (the United Kingdom) variant spreads more easily and quickly than other variants.
In the ECDC paper about Covid-19's variants we can see that:
Several modeling studies corroborate the postulated increased transmissibility of VOC 202012/01 (the scientific name of the United Kingdom variant)
In a Nature article from last week written:
Several research groups suggested that B.1.1.7, which was first identified in the United Kingdom, was spreading more quickly than previous variants...
The probabilistic meaning of these sentences is not clear to me. Does this mean that the risk to be infected by the British variant is X times greater? E.g. if I was exposed to the British variant for 10 minutes, my chance of contracting is equal to the chance of contagion the original variant for 10 * X minutes?
Is there any nuance I miss?