Ok, so I know whats the difference between the three terms in botany. Autogamy is pollination within the same flower, Geitonogamy is pollination from the anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower within the same plant and Xenogamy is the pollination from the anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower of another plant
But my question is what if there occurs pollination from the anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower of another species. Does it still count as Xenogamy?
My research turned out slightly problematic as I see different different definitions here's one from the google dictionary
fertilization of a flower by pollen from a flower on a genetically different plant.
But the problem is Wikipedia shows another one (well don't @ me if these sources sound unconventional, do enlighten me if there's an established organisation for defining these terminologies)
Xenogamy is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of a different plant. This is the only type of cross-pollination which during pollination brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma. The term xenogamy was first suggested by Kerner in 1876
So according to wiki, my case is xenogamy but according to google definitions it isn't (as there's no fertilisation) Whats the general consensus?