I understand that the post-ganglionic neurones of the sympathetic system are adrenergic, but surely these neurones will be excited to the same extent as the parasympathetic post-ganglionic neurones (due to the ganglionic synapses being cholinergic), and thus target organs/tissues will be receiving equal and opposite sympathetic/parasympathetic stimulation, or rather equal and opposite activation of the muscarinic/adrenergic receptors. (Sub-question: Why does caffeine, a perhaps atypical acetylcholinesterase inhibitor have a greater sympathetic effect than parasympathetic effect?).