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Aug 30, 2019 at 18:00 history tweeted twitter.com/StackBiology/status/1167497383418220544
Aug 30, 2019 at 15:56 answer added Bryan Krause timeline score: 1
Aug 28, 2019 at 19:18 comment added Bryan Krause In the meantime check out: pnas.org/content/105/5/1751 and see if it helps at all.
Aug 28, 2019 at 19:16 comment added Jimmy Thank you a 1000 times in advance. I'm looking forward to your answer!
Aug 28, 2019 at 19:08 comment added Bryan Krause I think you're actually very close. I'll try to write up an answer in the next 24hr or so. This system is a bit more complicated than other membrane potentials because there is actually a third compartment involved, and the endolymph/perilymph do not share a permeable membrane.
Aug 28, 2019 at 17:34 comment added Jimmy I am going to add follow-up question 3: in my example, the endolymph has a positive electric potential compared to the perilymph. If this does NOT imply more positive charges on the endolymph side, what does it mean at all? If I misunderstood and you are saying that such a difference is there, but small; wouldn't that mean that the most important ions (in the original post) are not listed? Because the (even if slightly) more positive side can't have a more negative net charge, right? I think I am not getting this at all.
Aug 28, 2019 at 17:25 comment added Jimmy If the charge concentrations remain basically the same on both sides, as you just said, how does the electric component exist at all? Thank you!!
Aug 28, 2019 at 17:25 comment added Jimmy My simplified understanding of electrochemical potentials used to be like this: if there is a concentration gradient across a membrane (for example of KCl), which is only permeable for K+ (but not Cl-), K+ will stream to the side of lower [KCl] to reach equal distribution. However, as no equal amount of negative charges follow (!), the charge concentrations will be different on either side and due to repulsion/attraction, an equilibrium between ‘chemical driving force’ and ‘electric driving force’ will be reached at some point.
Aug 28, 2019 at 17:24 comment added Jimmy Hello Bryan! Thank you so much for your nice reply! Unfortunately, I still don't quite understand it. As a matter of fact, I think I may be even more confused, and I'm not sure if I can put into words what exactly why. I will give it a try. First, if the charge concentrations are the same on both sides, shouldn’t the measurable voltage be zero? A potential of 90mV designates that an electric (not chemical) potential is actually measurable across a membrane, doesn’t it? Why is that if the electric net is the same of both sides?
Aug 28, 2019 at 15:32 history edited Bryan Krause CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 28, 2019 at 15:32 comment added Bryan Krause Not an idiot or stupid at all, please don't describe yourself that way - in fact since it is not true I will edit it out of your question :) You have a very common misconception for people studying this material, which is not realizing that the positive and negative concentration inside and out is effectively equal (you just don't have the full list). See if this previous answer: biology.stackexchange.com/questions/79619/… helps out. If not, I can tailor a fresh answer here.
Aug 28, 2019 at 11:50 review First posts
Aug 28, 2019 at 15:03
Aug 28, 2019 at 11:47 history asked Jimmy CC BY-SA 4.0