What happens if homozygous dominant alleles are present in an individual for an autosomal recessive disease will he be affected ?
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1$\begingroup$ What are your thoughts? Knowing your thoughts on the subject would help us understanding what could be unclear to you $\endgroup$– Remi.bCommented Jan 2, 2019 at 9:22
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2 Answers
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You are talking about an extremely simple system of inheritence that is a single bi-allelic locus with simple dominance relationships. You are talking about a autosomal recessive disease. In other words, let a and A be the two alleles, where A is dominant of a. By definition of your model, the individual expressing the disease is the individual carrying both a alleles (a aa individual). Anyone carrying the dominant allele would not express the disease (by definition of the term dominance and because you define a model where a and not A is causing the disease).
In short aa express the disease, while aA, Aa and AA individuals don't express the disease. aA and Aa are carrying the allele causing the disease though and might have kids expressing the disease if they mate with an individual that carries at least one allele a.
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No. Because you said it's homozygous, meaning that two alleles are identical, both dominant in this case. Hence, there's no recessive allele at this locus so he won't be affected.
