here is my question:
In certain plants, tall is dominant to short. If a heterozygous plant is crossed with a homozygous tall plant, what is the probability that the offspring will be short?
My Solution:
Let T be the allele for the tall phenotype and t be the allele for the short phenotype.
Then the parental cross would be Tt x TT = 100% tall phenotype (1/2 Tt, 1/2 TT).
Hence the probability of having short offspring should be $\fbox{0}$.
However, the answer key for this question says the answer is $\fbox{$\frac{1}{2}$}$. How can this be??? It really bothers me when the answer key is potentially incorrect because it makes me very unsure, and I end up wasting time trying to figure out if the key is wrong or if I am. Can somebody please let me know if what I did was correct/incorrect??
Thanks