I need help understanding this statement from Goodman and Gilman's "The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics:"
For a drug that is metabolized by the liver with a low intrinsic clearance-extraction ratio, saturation of plasma-protein binding will cause both V (distribution volume) and CL (clearance rate) to increase as drug concentrations increase.
This is how the textbook defines distribution volume and clearance. $$\text {distribution}\ \text{volume} = \frac{\text{amount of drug in the body}}{\text{concentration in plasma or blood}}$$
$$\text{clearance rate} = \text{bioavailability} \ \cdot \frac{\text{dosing rate}}{\text{concentration at steady state}}$$
I think I get the grasp of it somewhat, but I would like to verify if my reasoning is correct.
The reason why volume of distribution increases is because the drug is distributed to tissues other than blood once the plasma proteins are saturated with the drug. As a result, the amount of drug in the body increases while the concentration in plasma or blood stays the same. Hence, the increase in distribution volume.
As for clearance rate, it increases because the zeroth order reaction is always faster than the first order reaction in Michaelis-Menten kinetics.
However, I am not sure why the fact that plasma proteins are saturated matters.
For the distribution volume to increase, unbound drug concentration in plasma should stay constant while tissue drug concentration has to increase when more drug is administered. For clearance rate to increase, however, unbound drug in plasma needs to be able to increase when more drug is administered. What am I understanding wrong?